Why divide by n-1 in the sample variance?
easyAnswer
- Sample variance uses estimated mean X̄ instead of true μ.
- Since X̄ is closer to the data than μ (it minimizes SSD by definition), is systematically smaller than .
- Dividing by n-1 (not n) corrects this bias → unbiased estimator of .
- Formally: one degree of freedom is used to estimate the mean, leaving n-1 for variance.
- Same reason ANOVA / regression use df corrections.
Check yourself — multiple choice
- Convention
- X̄ is closer to data than μ → biased low; dividing by n-1 corrects to unbiased estimator (1 df used for mean)
- Wrong choice
- Only for small n
n-1: Bessel correction — X̄ absorbs one df; makes sample variance unbiased.
#estimation#variance
Practise Statistics Fundamentals
215 interview questions in this topic.
Related questions
- What does a 95% confidence interval mean?
- What is the bootstrap and when do you use it?
- What is Maximum Likelihood Estimation?
- Independence vs uncorrelatedness — what's the difference?
- Why do we use standard deviation instead of variance in interpretation?
- What is a covariance matrix and its key properties?